Last modified on 20 March 2015, at 23:50

Appendix talk:Old French verbs

"Second conjugation verbs mainly are descended from the second conjugation in Latin. The -ire ending of Latin infinitives becomes -ir"

I believe the -ire (-īre) infinitive suffix is characteristic of Latin fourth conjugation verbs; the corresponding infinitive suffix of Latin second conjugation verbs is -ēre.

A note on etymologyEdit

The table below shows pairs of verbs. One of each pair is Modern French and the other Classical Latin. In each pair, the Classical Latin verb is presumably the etymological ancestor of the Modern French verb. (Note the long vowels: ā, ē, and ī in the 1st, 2nd, and 4th conjugation (respectively) infinitive suffixes. The 3rd conjugation infinitive suffix has short vowels: faciō, facere (3rd conjugation) versus habeō, habēre (2nd conjugation).)

Modern French Verb Classical Latin Verb
Nominal Form/Infinitive (Nominal Form) Infinitive Conjugation: Meaning
aimer (amō) amāre 1st: love, like
avoir (habeō) habēre 2nd: have
devoir (dēbeō) dēbēre 2nd: owe, ought, should, must
voir (videō) vidēre 2nd: see
faire (faciō) facere 3rd: make, do
mettre (mittō) mittere 3rd: send
venir (veniō) venīre 4th: come

Grosbach 22:01, 2 September 2011 (UTC)

partirEdit

Aren't imperative forms partez and partons mixed up? Ignatus (talk) 15:56, 5 May 2012 (UTC)

Sure looks like it. Fixed. Chuck Entz (talk) 15:40, 1 January 2013 (UTC)

agreement with past participlesEdit

The part about the past participles is very confusing. First it states that unlike modern French the participle agrees with the object "even" if the object precedes it. However, according to this wikipedia article the past participle in modern French agrees with the object exactly when it precedes it, so that means that if the text of the appendix is correct the participle agrees in exactly the same contexts (although probably Old French has more constructions where the object precedes the participle). Then it proceeds to show this supposed contrast, but the modern French translation has the object following the participle, so there is no way to tell from that example that modern French doesn't allow agreement with preceding object (which as a matter of fact according to the wikipedia article linked above it does).Merijn2 (talk) 23:50, 20 March 2015 (UTC)

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