If plus is a verb in the example given, how on earth would you conjugate it? Which person and number is it in the example? It seems to be some type of particle to me, perhaps a conjugation, probably not a preposition. Like the numbers, maths terms don't seem to neatly fit the English part-of-speech system. — Hippietrail 13:27, 2 Mar 2005 (UTC)
Since plaire is always used as plaire à, these can't exist. It's a common error, il m'a plue, (woman/girl speaking) but since it's il a plu à la femme, plu should never take -e, -es or -s. Mglovesfun (talk) 12:40, 24 October 2009 (UTC)
Keep. A quote from Le participe passé dans la langue française et son histoire (Jean Bastin, 1880) : ... qu'au XVIIe siècle les grammairiens et les écrivains suivaient encore assez souvent cette ancienne règle) : Ils se sont nuis. Ils se sont plus. This may be considered as an error today, but it was still commonly used by writers during the XVIIth century (and it's still common, as Mglovesfun mentions it), and it was the general rule before Montaigne proposed to change it. Lmaltier 17:13, 24 October 2009 (UTC)
I was actually going to say […] the only reason to keep would be if they were obsolete verb forms, like pre-1900. Funny coincidence eh? Keep and rewrite per Lmaltier. Mglovesfun (talk) 17:22, 24 October 2009 (UTC)
Interesting. Some sort of Usage note seems called for. Ƿidsiþ 06:42, 29 October 2009 (UTC)
Rfd-sense (2) of plus, masculine past participle of pleuvoir. That actually sounds more plausible to me than the plaire ones, as to rain can be transitive in English. I suppose this might be an rfv issue? Comment? —This unsigned comment was added by Mglovesfun (talk • contribs) at 25 October 2009.
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Rfv-sense: French masculine plural past participle of pleuvoir. Pleuvoir is theoretically always intransitive, so this shouldn't be in use. But maybe it is. Mglovesfun (talk) 06:21, 5 January 2010 (UTC)
No, pleuvoir may be transitive (il pleuvait des injures). But, as it is impersonal, its past participle is theoretically invariable. That's only theory, of course, but it might be very difficult to find examples of uses of plus, plue or plues in the transitive sense of pleuvoir. Lmaltier 21:30, 6 January 2010 (UTC)
Per above, it's that a compliment rather than a true direct object? Mglovesfun (talk) 23:08, 3 February 2010 (UTC)
RFV failed, sense removed. —RuakhTALK 02:16, 11 August 2010 (UTC)
¶ Why is “plura” included there? Furthermore: are those inflection boxes outdated? Something cannot be quite right with this section… --Pilcrow 01:46, 5 May 2011 (UTC)
In the Latin section, you are correct; the inflected forms get their own entries, not stacked under this. The tables are also 'nonstandard' as they're written out rather than via a template. Mglovesfun (talk) 11:19, 10 May 2011 (UTC)