Vocative SingularEdit

The source of the information regarding the vocative singular in Classical Greek would be my Greek TA from my elementary Attic course. It would be better, however, if someone could find an additional source. My apologies for not having one. Medellia 03:59, 13 October 2006 (UTC)

Contradictory etimologyEdit

"Despite the superficial similarity, the word is not related to Latin deus" -- this is nonsense. Of course those words cognate, hence the phrase above "Cognate with Phyrigian δεως (deōs, “to the gods”)". It is clear that Greek and Latin words are not borrowed from each other language, but those are related from common Ingo-European roots. 11:29, 16 May 2012 (UTC)

Do you have a source to back up this claim? The IE roots look fairly different to me (*deiw- for deus and *dʰ(e)h₁s- for θεός ‎(theós)). My sources claim them to be quite distinct. -Atelaes λάλει ἐμοί 12:05, 16 May 2012 (UTC)
Maybe the common root is older than that and lost? That doesn't qualify as grounds to denounce the appearant relation, anyhow. I'll reword that sentence now --
I would like to point out that one of the five Latin League nations was the Veneti, amber traders from the Baltic. Those veneti (I reference information from the Lithuanian History museum in Klaipeda here) Were in turn migrants from Greece, with greek dress, customs, and IndoEuropean language. Taat does not prove origin, but it provides a mechanism by which Theos and Deus may be related.2600:1003:B119:7649:5424:A94D:569E:4208 16:42, 26 December 2014 (UTC)mjr
θεός came from PIE meaning maker. Deus came from PIE meaning sky, heaven, shine. Deus is cognate with Spanish día, but not with English day. θεός is cognate with English do. θεός and deus are false cognates, their PIE roots are not related to one another. —Stephen (Talk) 06:45, 6 April 2014 (UTC)

Established etymologyEdit

Chantraine, in his entry on 'θεός', states bluntly: 'Etymologie: Inconnue.' He then presents a few candidates, including the one given here as being established, concluding: 'finalement l'ensemble reste incertain'.

Likewise in Frisk: 'Nicht sicher erklärt.', and the same objection to linking it with *dʰ(e)h₁s: 'ē : ĕ bleibt noch zu erklären'.

Does anyone have sources stating that *dʰ(e)h₁s is now the established etymon?

Beekes says that that etymology "seems to be generally accepted". --Ivan Štambuk (talk) 21:35, 19 November 2013 (UTC)

deus dei di & uncertaintyEdit

The etymology section had previously stated that deus is not related to theos. I found this annoying as the vulgate used the deus dei di, etc. to translate the greek forms theos theon etc. So, in truth they are obviously comparable in the least.

The similarities aren't just superficial... they actually share meaning. In case you didn't notice that part...

Furthermore, the origins of the theos are UNKNOWN according to Strong. There is no evidence supporting the claim that these two words are in and of themselves entirely isolated from one another, in fact the evidence seems to trend in the other direction.

one word gets used in place of a previous word and the previous word is of unknown origin... these two words are inherently related in the context that the newer (latin deus) is the closest form of the word with any clear origin that we have...

that's not to say that it's correct to assume that they are the same word... but saying they aren't comparable... you might as well say that theos actually doesn't mean anything at all.

They cannot be related as Greek th- corresponds to Latin f-, while Greek d- corresponds to Latin d-. The discrepancy in the initial consonant makes common origin impossible. —CodeCat 00:41, 2 August 2014 (UTC)
(edit conflict) First of all, this is in the etymology section, so the only relationship that counts is in the derivation of the words. Of course θεός and deus have the same meaning, but that's irrelevant to the etymology. You mention Strong (I'm assuming you're referring to w:Strong's Concordance): it was compiled over a century ago by a theologian with no training in Indo-European historical linguistics. The evidence for the origin of both terms is pretty solid if you know about reconstruction of Indo-European roots, and it's not hard at all to tell that they come from completely different origins within Proto-Indo-European, and have just converged to have the same meaning. It's rare, but it happens. Chuck Entz (talk) 00:54, 2 August 2014 (UTC)
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