Talk:ⲟⲩⲥⲓⲣⲉ

Pronunciation

@Castillerian Coptic did not have a vowel length distinction or initial glottal stops. This may be argued for Egyptian, and it may be true of late liturgical Bohairic, but not Coptic proper. Ⲟⲩⲥⲓⲣⲉ is not a Bohairic form anyways. Rhemmiel (talk) 07:55, 14 August 2020 (UTC)

• @Rhemmiel What you're describing is based on the vowel quality theory, that later stages of Coptic lacked long vowels; the theory I generally follow is the vowel length theory. My forte in this area is the old Bohairic dialect (and its pronunciation spoken around 200CE), so I apologize if I generalize the pronunciation of one dialect across others. Castillerian (talk) 13:37, 14 August 2020 (UTC)