Talk:Θρᾷξ
Latest comment: 7 years ago by JohnC5 in topic Tone mark
Tone mark
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@Nayrb Rellimer: It is technically not ambiguous. Notice:
Θρᾷξ (Thrâix):
- (5th BCE Attic) IPA(key): /tʰrâːi̯ks/
- (1st CE Egyptian) IPA(key): /tʰraks/
- (4th CE Koine) IPA(key): /θraks/
- (10th CE Byzantine) IPA(key): /θraks/
- (15th CE Constantinopolitan) IPA(key): /θraks/
Θρᾴξ (Thrā́ix):
- (5th BCE Attic) IPA(key): /tʰráːi̯ks/
- (1st CE Egyptian) IPA(key): /tʰraks/
- (4th CE Koine) IPA(key): /θraks/
- (10th CE Byzantine) IPA(key): /θraks/
- (15th CE Constantinopolitan) IPA(key): /θraks/
—JohnC5 02:01, 18 April 2017 (UTC)
Then does the accent go on the first or the second of three morae? I don't know if I can post external links here, but listening to a recording on Youtube based on Stephen Daitz's restored pronunciation, it sounds like the accent is on the first of the three morae in overlong circumflex diphthongs. I don't currently have access to Stephen Daitz's actual recordings currently, but I would appreciate it if anyone else can verify the placement of the accent in such environments. Nayrb Rellimer (talk)
- @Nayrb Rellimer: So, I should point out that this discussion has occurred in a great detail more at Module talk:grc-pronunciation#Diphthongs, and the future solution has been implemented at Module:grc-pronunciation/sandbox. Soon we will be using rising, falling, and high tones instead of the moraic system that, while often reconstructed, does seems highly unlikely to have occurred in reality. —JohnC5 02:28, 18 April 2017 (UTC)
Based on table-2 under Diphthongs, shouldn't the diphthong then be [aːî̯] Nayrb Rellimer (talk)