From Old French or directly from Latin?

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I'm trying to understand if "cup" (and old English cuppe, and coppe) come directly from Latin rather from old French. It seems more logical that it comes from old French, as a meaning shift happend between Latin cupa and old French, and the cuppe/coppe variant seems to be a hint for the old French (same hesitation between "u" and "o" in old French), so it seems to come from the old French cope/cupe. It would be highly more logical.

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