Should meaning 2 be deleted?
Meaning 2 is not recognized by the OED or Merriam-Webster. Is it recognized by any authoritative dictionary of the English language? If not, then that would strongly suggest that meaning 2 is not an accepted meaning but instead a (somewhat common) usage error. Should it then be deleted? Or perhaps should it remain in the entry, but with a note marking it as a usage error? In keeping with other dictionaries, I would favor the former over the latter. Any ideas? Thanks. Supplementfacts (talk) 21:36, 9 November 2012 (UTC)
Is there a way of noting prevalent errors?
'Per say' is an increasingly frequent error for 'per se'.
Although the pronunciation of 'per say' is much the same as 'per se', it appears that 'say' is usually emphasised more than 'se', perhaps allowing the hearer to discern the speaker's 'spelling mistake'! G-W 13:58, 16 January 2009 (UTC)