I understand why we have man/men marked as irregular plurals (will that change?,) but isn't this normally used only in the plural? --Connel MacKenzie 21:20, 6 September 2007 (UTC)
- Is it? We have landsman. bd2412 T 21:28, 6 September 2007 (UTC)
I understand why we have man/men marked as irregular plurals (will that change?,) but isn't this normally used only in the plural? --Connel MacKenzie 21:20, 6 September 2007 (UTC)Reply