British Isles. Is that term obsolete or still popular?

Fragment of a discussion from User talk:Internoob

Yes, if it's true, then it may be a good idea to add a usage note to that effect. However, I am skeptical about what you claim about the "age of consent" not being used by governments or in law. Here's a Government of Canada website that defines the term and here is Bill C-22 in the Canadian parliament that contains the term. It doesn't appear to be in the Criminal Code of Canada, however.

Internoob17:08, 28 April 2015

There are a few states and governments that use the term, but not many. For example, in Indiana the legal age for sexual activity is called "sexual misconduct with a minor" they do not use the term "age of consent" at all. Rhode Island, I remember reading, actually does use the term age of consent in its law, but that's pretty much the only time I've heard of it being used as a formal legal term. So what I'm saying is true 9 out of 10 times, that states and government do not use this term. I used to believe it was a legal and was criticized by Malke2010 and Flyer22 for using it on wikipedia without pointing out it was not a formal legal term. Also, statutory rape is not a formal legal term either. I found a source for my statement that the British Empire is not a formal legal term, Pax Britannica by James Morris, I remembered reading it when I was in middle school and looked up the quote that I remembered on google books.

PaulBustion88 (talk)17:15, 28 April 2015

What this amounts to then, is that some governments sometimes use the term. I don't really know what the Wikipedian guys say, but in any case we shouldn't just take their word for it. Also check out this Google query for "age of consent" on government websites: [1] Keep in mind that we are descriptivists and not prescriptivists, so we document the actual usage of a word, and not what some authority says the usage is or should be.

Internoob20:45, 28 April 2015
 

Is including the medical definition of pedophilia in the pedophilia entry ok? The medical definition is primary or exclusive sexual attraction to prepubescent children. The popular definition is any sexual attraction to/interaction with a minor by an adult (i.e. someone 18 or older being sexually attracted to/sexually interacting with someone 17 or younger.) Equinox has objected to the medical, saying that we should only use popular definitions, or "real world usage". Equinox's criticism was stated https://en.wiktionary.org/w/index.php?title=Wiktionary%3ATea_room%2F2015%2FApril&diff=32765298&oldid=32765077 "[1] So are we defining things in terms of what they mean in practice, or in terms of what PaulBustion88 says they mean according to the medical establishment? jus checkin. Equinox 23:59, 27 April 2015 (UTC)" SemperBlotto agreed with Equninox,https://en.wiktionary.org/w/index.php?title=Wiktionary:Tea_room/2015/April&diff=prev&oldid=32766787, stating, "*We should be defining terms with the meaning that they have in the real world. If a term has a more strict meaning in a the legal system of a particular country then we might tell people in the talk page but not make it part of a definition. SemperBlotto (talk) 08:00, 28 April 2015 (UTC)"My response was "*Equinox, if you had bothered reading the entry, you would have seen that the broader definition, of any adult sexual attraction towards/interaction with any minor, is also included. I'm only limiting the MEDICAL definition to a primary or exclusive attraction to children. That's what Renard Migrant and I agreed on as a compromise. The broader, "real word" usage is already included, and its the first definition, so what the problem?--PaulBustion88 (talk) 08:04, 28 April 2015 (UTC)"https://en.wiktionary.org/w/index.php?title=Wiktionary:Tea_room/2015/April&diff=next&oldid=32766787 However, Renard Migrant has stated he favors including both the popular definition and the medical definition, because they are different in their meaning and usage."PaulBustion88 has raised on my talk page (and not here, much to my chagrin) the possibility of having two definitions. A general-use definition, an instance of an adult engaging in sexual activity with a minor, no matter what the ages are apart from those two restrictions, and a medical definition where we specify pre-pubescent. I would be in favor of it; I think these definitions are distinct in terms of usage and meaning. Renard Migrant (talk) 22:51, 24 April 2015 (UTC)" https://en.wiktionary.org/w/index.php?title=Wiktionary%3ARequests_for_cleanup&diff=32733249&oldid=32733177 Do you agree with Renard Migrant and myself that the medical definition should be included, as it is currently, or do you agree with Equinox and SemperBlott that only the popular definition should be included and the medical definition should be removed?

PaulBustion88 (talk)17:27, 28 April 2015

I'm going to agree with BoBoMisiu's comment here. The easiest way to convince people that your definition is valid is to give quotations of it. Other than that, I would like to decline further comment.

Internoob20:32, 28 April 2015

BoboMisiu has added two definitions to pedophilia that seem redundant, and one that definitely is. I took the one that definitely was redundant down. Do you think I made a mistake in doing that?

PaulBustion88 (talk)06:33, 5 May 2015

It seems at first glance like I agree with your decision, but then again I haven't read the whole discussion about this word on the talk page and in Tea Room.

Internoob17:40, 5 May 2015

Bobomisiu has been insinuating that I'm a pedophile advocate. I think she's partially doing that as an ad hominem attack against me so people will not listen to my point that the definitions she is adding to the pedophilia entry are redundant.

PaulBustion88 (talk)17:49, 5 May 2015

Can you show me the diff for this comment?

Internoob03:04, 6 May 2015