British Isles. Is that term obsolete or still popular?
I agree with Equinox and those guys. As long as people still use the term, we can't label it archaic or obsolete. "Archaic" is for words that sound really old and aren't in common usage like "thou" and "quoth". "Obsolete" is for words that are so old that their meaning is no longer widely understood, like Category:English obsolete terms. So "British Isles" is neither because it is still widely used and understood. You might get away with calling it politically incorrect or proscribed, but I wouldn't bother since the usage notes already seem to cover it.
In cases where a legal idea is being described using a term that the law does not formally use, is it ok to note that its not a formal legal term. For example the term age of consent is never used by states/governments, although obviously it is a real concept in the sense that adults are not allowed to have sex with children, its not a term that appears in government/state usage ever, and Malke2010 criticized me for using the term on English wikipedia, pointing out that its not a term that appears in any laws. Its a real concept, but the term is not actually used by the governments, so I thought that should at least be pointed out in "usage notes". Another example is that the British Empire was not an actual legal entity the way the United States of America and the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics were, there was never a constitutionally organized called the British Empire, it was just a way people informally described the combination of the Kingdom of Great Britain and Ireland (later just Northern Ireland) and its colonies, dominions, and crown dependencies. Is it ok to note discrepancies like that between formal legal terminology and how its informally described?
Yes, if it's true, then it may be a good idea to add a usage note to that effect. However, I am skeptical about what you claim about the "age of consent" not being used by governments or in law. Here's a Government of Canada website that defines the term and here is Bill C-22 in the Canadian parliament that contains the term. It doesn't appear to be in the Criminal Code of Canada, however.
There are a few states and governments that use the term, but not many. For example, in Indiana the legal age for sexual activity is called "sexual misconduct with a minor" they do not use the term "age of consent" at all. Rhode Island, I remember reading, actually does use the term age of consent in its law, but that's pretty much the only time I've heard of it being used as a formal legal term. So what I'm saying is true 9 out of 10 times, that states and government do not use this term. I used to believe it was a legal and was criticized by Malke2010 and Flyer22 for using it on wikipedia without pointing out it was not a formal legal term. Also, statutory rape is not a formal legal term either. I found a source for my statement that the British Empire is not a formal legal term, Pax Britannica by James Morris, I remembered reading it when I was in middle school and looked up the quote that I remembered on google books.
What this amounts to then, is that some governments sometimes use the term. I don't really know what the Wikipedian guys say, but in any case we shouldn't just take their word for it. Also check out this Google query for "age of consent" on government websites: [1] Keep in mind that we are descriptivists and not prescriptivists, so we document the actual usage of a word, and not what some authority says the usage is or should be.
Is including the medical definition of pedophilia in the pedophilia entry ok? The medical definition is primary or exclusive sexual attraction to prepubescent children. The popular definition is any sexual attraction to/interaction with a minor by an adult (i.e. someone 18 or older being sexually attracted to/sexually interacting with someone 17 or younger.) Equinox has objected to the medical, saying that we should only use popular definitions, or "real world usage". Equinox's criticism was stated https://en.wiktionary.org/w/index.php?title=Wiktionary%3ATea_room%2F2015%2FApril&diff=32765298&oldid=32765077 "[1] So are we defining things in terms of what they mean in practice, or in terms of what PaulBustion88 says they mean according to the medical establishment? jus checkin. Equinox ◑ 23:59, 27 April 2015 (UTC)" SemperBlotto agreed with Equninox,https://en.wiktionary.org/w/index.php?title=Wiktionary:Tea_room/2015/April&diff=prev&oldid=32766787, stating, "*We should be defining terms with the meaning that they have in the real world. If a term has a more strict meaning in a the legal system of a particular country then we might tell people in the talk page but not make it part of a definition. SemperBlotto (talk) 08:00, 28 April 2015 (UTC)"My response was "*Equinox, if you had bothered reading the entry, you would have seen that the broader definition, of any adult sexual attraction towards/interaction with any minor, is also included. I'm only limiting the MEDICAL definition to a primary or exclusive attraction to children. That's what Renard Migrant and I agreed on as a compromise. The broader, "real word" usage is already included, and its the first definition, so what the problem?--PaulBustion88 (talk) 08:04, 28 April 2015 (UTC)"https://en.wiktionary.org/w/index.php?title=Wiktionary:Tea_room/2015/April&diff=next&oldid=32766787 However, Renard Migrant has stated he favors including both the popular definition and the medical definition, because they are different in their meaning and usage."PaulBustion88 has raised on my talk page (and not here, much to my chagrin) the possibility of having two definitions. A general-use definition, an instance of an adult engaging in sexual activity with a minor, no matter what the ages are apart from those two restrictions, and a medical definition where we specify pre-pubescent. I would be in favor of it; I think these definitions are distinct in terms of usage and meaning. Renard Migrant (talk) 22:51, 24 April 2015 (UTC)" https://en.wiktionary.org/w/index.php?title=Wiktionary%3ARequests_for_cleanup&diff=32733249&oldid=32733177 Do you agree with Renard Migrant and myself that the medical definition should be included, as it is currently, or do you agree with Equinox and SemperBlott that only the popular definition should be included and the medical definition should be removed?
I'm going to agree with BoBoMisiu's comment here. The easiest way to convince people that your definition is valid is to give quotations of it. Other than that, I would like to decline further comment.
BoboMisiu has added two definitions to pedophilia that seem redundant, and one that definitely is. I took the one that definitely was redundant down. Do you think I made a mistake in doing that?
It seems at first glance like I agree with your decision, but then again I haven't read the whole discussion about this word on the talk page and in Tea Room.